This is a serious question. I don't really know the answer. And I'm baffled.
They tell me that "I knew since I was five years old that I was attracted to people of the same sex as me." They tell me that "I knew when I was 8 (or 2 or 18 months) that I was a man/woman trapped in a woman's/man's body." They tell me they knew all this at a very young age.
Now, I have to be honest. I didn't know I was "attracted to people" at all of any sex until I was nearly a teenager. So on what basis do these people know at an age that would logically suggest is "pre-sexual" that they have sexual desires for ... anything? I really don't know.
And I've known effeminate males and tomboys of a variety of ages that never did know "I was a man/woman trapped in a woman's/man's body". They were just "prissy" guys or "tough" girls who went on to be normal folk. So what is it that tells a 2-year-old or an 8-year-old that they're in the "wrong body" and not just more feminine or masculine than some of their peers?
These are, basically, the same question. It appears that there is a group of people much earlier connected to sexuality than most humans. Children, in my experience, aren't much aware or concerned about sexual attraction or gender. Well, girls are pretty yucky to boys, perhaps, but sex is not an issue. So I'm baffled how it is that there is this apparent group of people who know at such an early age what didn't occur to me or the rest of us until much later. What is it that makes this so?
6 comments:
That's simple. It's total BS.
I had my first crush when I was 11. And I know a lot of guys who started noticing girls at that age. But to say that when one is much younger than that they have developed sexual attractions - that is pure nonsense.
I find it very telling that these people were TOLD by others that they had these desires. No, these people were brainwashed or trained from a young age - they were not born with any perverse sexual desires.
I don't know. I worked with 4th graders a few years ago and I know they were more sexualized at that age than I was at that age. I wonder if there isn't something else going on? (The reason for the "serious question".)
Dan Trabue, I cannot publish a comment of yours laced with profanity. It would offend my readers -- most importantly, my mother. Since you show no regard for the feelings of my mother (or others), I will still not be posting your comments.
But please don't fool yourself into believing that we are the ignorant, unkind, judgmental ones and you're the loving, gracious, gentle one. Surely these kinds of comments prove otherwise.
If homosexuality and gender confusion were truly natural and not choice, wouldn't that then mean that NOBODY chooses, but it is chosen for them? And if that is the case, wouldn't even one person choosing the opposite of their "nature" be evidence it not being natural? My mother grew up straight. She did not have homosexual tendencies or thoughts. After one divorce and one hypersexual marriage that ended in divorce, she decided to be gay. Not because she had these latent feelings all along, but because she'd been "hurt by too many men." She CHOSE to be gay. Wouldn't that disprove the entire hypothesis?
Is there something else going on? Yes. They are being sexualize from pre-school on, with all the sex-ed and pro-homosexual "diversity" teaching. And everywhere they look from TV to movies to magazines, etc all they see are things about sex. This is a sex-saturated society, and we are teaching our kids to think about sex 24/7
Post a Comment