No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God's seed abides in him; and he cannot keep on sinning, because he has been born of God. (1 Jn 3:9)You understand the question. What does that mean? Let's assume for the moment that it doesn't mean what it says at face value (because what it says is that no one who is born of God can keep on sinning -- they lack the ability), what else can it mean that allows for a genuine believer sinning oneself to eternal death? You see, we can't rip out these pages; we have to connect them.
"Not everything that happens in the world is God's will," another friend firmly declared. "God doesn't will bad things to happen." There ensued a brief conversation on the definition of "God's will," which led me to ask, "How does your definition of God's will fit in with Eph 1:11?"
In Him we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to the purpose of Him who works all things according to the counsel of His will. (Eph 1:11)You understand the question. What does that mean? Let's assume for the moment that it doesn't mean what it says at face value (because what it says is that God works all things according to the counsel of His will), what else can it mean that allows things to happen outside of God's will? We can't delete some texts to embrace others. We have to find how they correlate, not contradict.
This is a constant effort, an ongoing process. You and I will continually find things in our thinking, our feelings, even our theology that, as it turns out, contradicts something in Scripture. We have options. We can ignore Scripture or we can try to change what Scriptrue actually means to align with us or we can examine God's Word diligently to see how He is always right when we are not. So we are always asking, "What does that mean?"
9 comments:
As I read your post, it seems to me that you are suggesting that Eph 1:11 is indicating that God wills everything that happens. Since I've always believed that God created us with the ability to choose (which led to sin), it seems as though the "God wills everything" view eliminates real choice, which eliminates the ability to love God, as well as our culpability for our sins. It seems as though the verse is saying that God can take out choices and work those choices and their consequences in such a way as to accomplish His will.
Please correct me if I'm wrong on how I'm reading your post.
Here's a thought: Could 1 Jn 3:9 refer to Christ's sacrifice washing away all sins of the believer, committed and what might be committed in the future? In that sense, one cannot sin. It's difficult to imagine that with rare exception even the most devout won't commit a sin at some point in their lives. OR, is that just a description of the "perfect" Christian...that is, an ideal rather than a reality? In either case, it seems to me, the verse is still truthful.
Craig, I don't understand Eph 1:11 to say that God causes all things that happen. I understand it to say that God either causes or allows what happens because it works out His ultimate will. An example of "causes" would include Gen 20:6 where God told Abimelech, "I kept you from sinning against me." Examples of "allows" would be Gen 50:20 ("You meant evil against me, but God meant it for good") and Judas Iscariot (Luke 22:22).
Marshal, If Christ's sacrifice means that we have no more sins, 1 John 1:8-2:1 is meaningless and, perhaps, false. As for the "perfected" Christian, the reference is to "one who is born of God." That's from the beginning, not at the end. (There is no "perfect" Christian this side of heaven.)
But, wait, Marshal, here's my real question. What the verse says is pretty clear and is backed up in the context of the verse. I understand that the idea is not "normal" -- is not what our intuition tells us. What I want to know is why it cannot mean what it says. What principle, what truth, what Scripture is violated if the text means what it appears to say? Why are we trying to re-explain it?
Stan,
That’s what I thought, but wanted to clarify.
"Marshal, If Christ's sacrifice means that we have no more sins, 1 John 1:8-2:1 is meaningless and, perhaps, false."
Not at all. Indeed, it seems more to validate my point. Because of that verse, it seems to contradict 3:9, unless 3:9 is not to mean that Christians won't sin. The sentence immediately preceding says, "The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the devil's work." Sin is the devil's work, not the sinner. In any case, my study Bible explains "cannot go on sinning" this way: "Not a complete cessation of sin, but a life that is not characterized by sin." Thus, the "ideal" to which I referred.
Ooh! I forgot the "re-explain it" part. When you mention no "perfect" Christian (ignoring the possibility that my use of quotations around the word meant I wasn't using the word literally) this side of heaven, you again validate my position because as we're not perfect, we're likely to sin. Thus, 3:9 isn't or can't be referring to one born of God never again committing any sin. It CAN'T be saying that one born of God literally doesn't sin anymore.
So, you understand "cannot sin" in terms of "positionally"? We all commit sins, but the verb tense (as your study Bible indicates) is an ongoing present tense, as in "make a practice of sin." Thus, all believers can and do sin, but either they cannot make a practice of sin actually or, in your take, positionally. We are justified -- declared right -- positionally while we are still sinners. You understand that this verse is talking about that? It is abundantly clear that the text cannot refer to a sinless believer (what they call "perfectionism") or it would simply be a contradiction to what John wrote in 1 John 18-2:2. I understand 3:9 to mean that one born of God cannot make an ongoing, unending, continuous practice of sin. Uninterrupted with repentance. Because the seed of God abides in him. You understand it differently?
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