Limited Atonement

The so-called doctrine of Limited Atonement is perhaps the most contested doctrine in Reformed Theology. So hotly contested is it that you can find people who classify themselves as "Reformed" but deny that particular point. There are "5-point Calvinists" and "4-point Calvinists" because that one point is just unacceptable. My intent here is not to defend the point. My intent is, rather, to find common ground. Look, I didn't even put "Reformed Theology" as a label here because I don't think I am going to talk about Reformed Theology. I think I'm going to find agreement.

So, where do we agree? First, we agree that "Limited Atonement" is wrong. It is, from your perspective, a falsehood and from my perspective a poor way to put together an acrostic. Let's start, then, by just throwing that one right out, okay?

So, on the concept of the Atonement, what do we believe? Well, we believe in the sufficiency of the Atonement. We believe, that is, that Christ's death on the cross was sufficient for all the sin of all mankind. We are all in agreement on that point. It was funny to me. I once heard a preacher defending the doctrine of Limited Atonement where he asserted "Christ's atonement was sufficient for all, but efficient for some." Not a week later I heard another preacher preach against Limited Atonement. His claim? "Christ's atonement was sufficient for all, but efficient for some." Indeed, word for word. So we're all in agreement here on the sufficiency of Christ's atonement.

What else? There are a small number who call themselves both "Christian" and "Universalists". This is problematic since Christ spoke more of the threat of Hell than anyone and the warnings that "few there are who find it" (referring to the way to God) are throughout Scripture. So I think I'm fairly safe in suggesting that we largely agree that the Atonement does not apply to everyone equally. It's a reference to that shared quote above: "Christ's atonement was sufficient for all, but efficient for some." That is, "efficient for some" means "not for others". The Atonement only applies to some. We all agree that the Atonement is offered to all, but is only appropriated by those who repent of their sin and believe. I'm pretty sure, even though the phrase will catch in your throat at this point, that in this sense the Atonement is limited. We're pretty comfortable with that fact as biblical and clear. Not everyone has their sins atoned.

Well, now, look at that. We're all in agreement so far. On the sufficiency of the Atonement, we agree that it was sufficient for all. On the efficiency (how effective it is), it was efficient for some. To disagree with the first is to diminish Christ's work. To disagree with the second is to subscribe to Universalism. I think we're all on the same page so far.

So where is the controversy? The question isn't about the sufficiency or efficiency. The question is about the intent. When Christ went to the cross, what did He intend to accomplish? When God gave His Son to die, what did He intend to achieve? The question was of the Divine Plan. What did they expect to do?

The Open Theist will argue that God didn't know what would happen. He had possibilities in mind, of course, but couldn't actually know what they would accomplish with this sacrifice of His Son. So this view is of the opinion that God was just playing a big gamble, so to speak. Oh, no, they wouldn't actually say that. I don't mean to suggest that's their stated position. But, in essence, God, not actually knowing the outcome, played the odds and sacrificed His Son with the theoretical possibility that no one would be saved but reasonably sure that someone would believe.

On the other hand, the orthodox Christian--the one who subscribes to the historic Omniscience of God--has to say that God knew what would happen as a result of His Son's death on the cross. To us, then, what was God's intent? We would have to conclude that God's plan was to save some. Not all. If His plan was to save all, God failed. And we don't believe that God fails. So His plan must have been to save some, and those "some" (however that number is determined) will be saved because, as everyone knows, God does not fail. It is, in fact, what Jesus said. "I lay down My life for the sheep." (John 10:15) (In case there is any question, "the sheep" are specified as "My sheep" in the same chapter. Christ says "I have other sheep that are not of this fold. I must bring them also, and they will listen to my voice." (John 10:16) In case you might be confused and think "sheep" refers to "all people".) So it seems obvious that we--all Bible-believing Christians--agree that the intent of the cross was the salvation of some, not all, and that this intent will be fully realized.

You see, then, that I arrive at a point of confusion. I'm confused about the confusion. What I've laid out here on which I think we're all agreed is, in the final analysis, the doctrine badly named "Limited Atonement". It is not about limited sufficiency. It is not even about limited efficiency, even though we're all in agreement there. It's not about limited opportunity. This atonement is offered to all, contingent on "repent and believe". It is about intent. And I think we're all in agreement that God did not intend to save every man, woman, and child and fail in that intent. I think we're all in agreement that He intended to save those who repent and believe and is succeeding in that plan. So my confusion is why this doctrine is so hotly contested when I think it is actually agreeable to all Bible believers. With the exception, perhaps, of the Universalists and the Open Theists, with whom we have more difficulties, are we not agreement here?