Redemption is an Old Testament concept in which a person in trouble has sold himself into servanthood to pay back debts and a relative is allowed to "redeem" him or her from that problem. How? They pay the debt.
The idea, then, is carried over into the New Testament all the way down to us. Paul wrote in Ephesians that "We have redemption through His blood" (Eph 1:7). Peter wrote about "you were ransomed from the futile ways inherited from your forefathers" (1 Peter 1:18-19). Paul said (twice), "You were bought with a price" (1 Cor 6:20; 1 Cor 7:23). In Titus we read that "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law" (Titus 2:14). Even Jesus said, "the Son of Man came not to be served but to serve, and to give His life as a ransom for many" (Matt 20:28). As the old song says, "Jesus paid it all."
Or ... did He? How much sin did Jesus pay for? There are a few options. Some would say, "None." Others say, "All." And we need to leave room in the middle for "some." Which is it? Of those who argue, "None," there are two basic categories. The first, obviously, are the skeptics, the unbelievers. Jesus didn't pay anything for anybody. He probably didn't exist. The second isn't as obvious. This group argues that Jesus existed and even died on the cross and rose again, but He didn't "pay for sin." Sin didn't need payment. This group minimizes our sin to human proportions and ... it's easy. Poof! God simply blows them away. Now, that doesn't fit in a biblical view, but what other options do we have? The most common among Christians, I think, is the "all" view. He paid for all sin. "But," someone might well ask, "doesn't that mean all are saved?" Logically if all sin is paid for then no one is culpable for any sin. And there is as set of folks who will agree. Universalists. But most say, "No, only those who believe." But if only those who believe have their sins paid for, in what sense did Jesus pay for all? Worse, since Jesus specifies at least one sin that cannot be forgiven (Matt 12:31), we have to conclude that not all sins are paid for. Now, if Christ paid for "None" then no sins are paid for and if Christ paid for "All" then neither obedience nor faith are factors. The only thing that makes sense in light of all that Scripture tells us on the subject is that Jesus did pay for sin. That is, all sin that is now or ever will be forgiven Christ paid for on the cross, but "None" or "All" doesn't work out.
Well, of course, the next question has to be, "What about me? What about my sins?" Well, Paul wrote that the gospel "is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes" (Rom 1:16). The famous John 3:16 says, "Whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life." It appears, then, that Christ paid for all the sins of those who believe. That is, all who place their faith in Christ's payment for our sin and in the righteousness conferred by the Father (2 Cor 5:21) can be certain that all their sins are paid in full. End of story. In that sense "all" is paid for. Those who have as their only hope the sacrifice of Christ cannot out-sin the effectiveness of that sacrifice. And what about those who don't believe that Christ died to redeem us, who don't believe that faith in Christ is the only means to salvation? They have something to be concerned about.
3 comments:
So it's both/and. He paid for none of the sins of the unbelievers, and He paid for all the sins of the believers.
Little philosophy joke there.
Or ... "some." :)
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